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Wednesday, October 27, 2021

MODEL PAPER DISUCSSION CHAPTER 4:- MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

 


UNIT TEST

TOPIC: MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MARKS:-25                                                         TIME:-1.30HRS.

SECTION-A

QN.1) SELECT AND WRITE THE CORRECT ANSWER: -                   (04)

            i) The terminator codons are

                  a) UAA, UAG, UGA                b) AUG, UAG, UGA

                  c) UAC, AUG, UAG                         d) DCC, UAA, CAC     

            ii) The main step involved in the process of translation is

                  a) Activation of amino acid

                  b) Initiation of polypeptide chain synthesis

                  c) Termination of polypeptide chain formation

                  d) Transfer of polypeptide chain to tRNA               

            iii) Exons help in synthesis of

                  a) Proteins                      b) fatty acids

                  c) Fats                         d) glycogen

    iv) The octamer core of nucleosome contains two molecules each of the following histones 

            a) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

                  b) H1, H2A, H2B, H3

                  c) H1, H2A, H2B, H4

          d) H1, H2B, H3, H4  

 

QN.2) ANSWER THE FOLLOWING: -                                 (03)

        i) How many base pairs of DNA helix are wound over on nucleosome approximately?

            Ans:-Approximately 200 base pairs.

             ii) Name the enzyme which nicks DNA strands temporarily at point ‘O’.

            Ans:-Enzyme endonuclease

             iii) What is the number of estimated base pairs in the bacterium E.coli?

            Ans:-4.6 million base pairs.

SECTION-B

ATTEMPT ANY FOUR: -                                                     (08)

QN.3) Give any two applications of genomics.

Ans: - 1) Used in agriculture to develop transgenic crops having more desirable characters.

        2) Genetic markers developed in genomics have applications in forensic analysis.

        3) Genomics can lead to introduce new gene in microbes to produce enzymes, therapeutic proteins and even biofuels.

        4) Helps on treatment of genetic disorders through gene therapy.

        5) Improvement of livestock is also possible.

QN.4) Give the role of b-galactoside permease and b-galactoside acetyltransferase.

Ans:-1) b-galactoside permease- permits lactose molecules to enter into the cell.

  2) b-galactoside acetyltransferase- transfers acetyl group from acetyl CO-A to galactoside.

QN.5) Draw a well labelled diagram of transcription unit.

 


QN.6) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following figure,

 


QN.7) Differentiate between leading strand and lagging strand (any two points).

Leading strand

Lagging strand

1) Continuously growing strand is
  called as leading strand

1)  The discontinuously growing
    strand which is in the form of
    Okazaki fragments is called as
    lagging strand.

2) Synthesis of leading strand
  proceeds towards the replication
  fork.

2)  Synthesis of lagging strand
    proceeds away from replication
    fork.

3) Only one RNA primer is required.

3)  Large number of RNA primers are    required.

4) Okazaki fragments are not
  produced.

4)  Okazaki fragments are produced.

5) Activity of DNA ligase is not
  observed

5)  Activity of DNA ligase  observed to join DNA fragments

6)  Leading strand is synthesized over leading templet.

6) Lagging strand is synthesized over lagging templet.

 

 

QN.8) Match the following columns and write the correct answer,

Column(I)

Column(II)

a) UUU

i) Leu

b) AUG

ii) Isoleu

c) AUU

iii) Phe

d) UUA

iv) Met

 

SECTION-C

ATTEMPT ANY TWO: -                                                      (06)

QN.9) Explain any three properties of genetic code.

Ans:-1) Genetic code is triplet code

        2) Distinct polarity

        3) Non-overlapping

        4) Commaless

        5) Degeneracy

        6) Universal

        7) Non-ambiguous

(FOR EXPLAINATION WATCH THE FULL VIDEO)

QN.10) Give an account of Hershey-Chase experiment that proved, ’DNA is the genetic material’.

Ans: - 1) worked with bacteriophages that composed of DNA and proteins.

        2) Used radioactive phosphorus 32P in the medium for some viruses and radioactive sulphur 35S for some others.

        3) Viruses cultured on medium with radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but proteins do not.

        4) Similarly viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain sulphur.

        5) These phages were allowed to infect E.coli bacteria containing normal ‘P’ and ‘S’. After infection viral coats were removed by centrifugation.

6) Bacteria infected with viruses containing radioactive DNA were radioactive and those infected with containing radioactive sulphur were not radioactive.

7) This indicates that protein did not enter the bacteria. Hence, DNA is the genetic material.

QN.11) State any three aims of human genome project.

Ans: - 1) Mapping the entire human genome at the level of nucleotide sequence.

        2) To store the information collected from the project in databases.

        3) To develop tools and techniques for analysis of the data.

        4) Transfer the related technologies to the private sectors such as industries.

        5) Taking care of the legal, ethical and social issues which may arise from the project.

 

SECTION-D                   

ATTEMPT ANY ONE                                                         (04)

QN.12) Explain various steps of DNA fingerprinting in sequence. Draw a flow sheet diagram for the same.

Ans:-Technique of DNA fingerprinting involves following steps.

    (A) Extraction of DNA:

    DNA molecule from sample is extracted which may be blood stain, semen, saliva, etc.

    (B) Amplification:

    Many copies of DNA are made by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) if the content of DNA is less.

    (C) Restriction digestion / Fragmentation:

    It is cutting of DNA into fragments containing VNTRs at specific site with the help of restriction endonucleases.

    As a result DNA fragments of different lengths are obtained which contain VNTR.

    (D) Electrophoresis:

    1.  Broken DNA fragments are separated and arranged according to their
  length and electric charge on ‘Agarose polymer Gel slab’.

    2.  It is a method of separation of charged molecules by applying electric field.

    3.  The DNA molecule have negative charge. Therefore, they move towards anode.

4. The DNA fragments move through the gel column and the rate of movement depends upon length of fragment.

    E)  Splitting or Conversion of ds-DNA:

      By using alkaline chemicals ds-DNA can be made single stranded.

    (F) Southern Blotting (Development by Southern).

    1.  Transfer of separated DNA sequences from gel on nitrocellulose or nylon membrane which shows number of ss-DNA fragments.

    2.  These fragments get permanently fixed on membrane.

      3.  ss-DNA fragments are hybridized with already available DNA probes or markers (radiolabeled).

    4.  In autoradiography probe hybridizes with those ss-DNA strands which contain VNTR.

    5.  This nylon membrane is exposed to x-ray film to mark the places where DNA probe bound to DNA fragments.

6. The hybridized regions are marked as dark bands on x-ray film called as autoradiograph which represents DNA fingerprint.





QN.13) Describe the experiment that proves, ‘DNA replication is semiconservative’.

Ans: - 1) semiconservative nature of DNA replication was experimentally proved by Messelson and Stahl using equilibrium density gradient centrifugation technique.

        2) Cultured E.coli in the medium containing 14N (light nitrogen) and obtained equilibrium density gradient band by using CsCl2.recorded position of this band.

        3) These cells were transferred to 15N (heavy isotopic nitrogen) medium and allowed to replicate for several generations.

        At equilibrium point density gradient bands were obtained and position was recorded.

        4) Heavy DNA can be distinguished from light DNA on the basis of density gradient.

        5) Now these cells were cultured on medium containing 14N (normal nitrogen). After first generation density gradient band for 14N15N was obtained and its position was recorded. Two such bands were obtained after second generation, one at 14N and other at 15N position.

        6) This clearly proved that replication is semiconservative.


 

 

MCQS FOR CHAPTER 10 :- HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES

 MCQS FOR CHAPTER  10 :- HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES

MARK ANSWERS IN TEXTBOOK


1. Human immunodeficiency virus

(HIV)  has a protein coat and a 

genetic material which is

a) single-stranded DNA

b) single-stranded RNA

c) double-stranded RNA

d) double-stranded DNA

2. Carcinoma refers to

a) malignant tumours of the colon    

b) benign tumours of the connective

tissue

c) malignant tumours of the bone

and cartilage

d) malignant tumours of the con-

nective tissue

3. Cancer cells are datnaged by 

radiations while otherls are not

because cancer cells are

a) starved        b) different in nature

c) undergoing rapid divisions

d) larger in size

4. Sarcoma is cancer of

a) epithelial tissue

b) mesodermal tissue

c) blood d) endodermal tissue

5. AIDS was first reported in 

a) Russia b) Germany

c) USA d) France

6. What type of cancer affects lymph

nodes and spleen

a) carcinoma b) sarcoma      

c) leukemia d) lymphoma

7. Cancer of stomach, lungs and liver is

known as

a) sarcoma      b) carinoma 

c) leukemia         d) lymphoma

8. Which of the following is cancer

of blood

a) lymphoma b) leukemia

c) myeloma d) sarcoma   

9. Current treatment for cancer does not

include which of the following

a) chemotherapy b) radiation therapy

c) surgery d) physiotherapy

10. Typhoid is an acute infection of 

a) liver                      b) intestine 

c) lungs                d) blood

11. Diagnosis of typhoid is confirmed by  

( a) ELISA test b) biopsy 

(c) western blot test  d) widal test

12. Which of the following disease is 

bacterial

a) AIDS b) haemophilia

c) cancer d) typhoid        

13. The study of tumours is called as a 

a) Ecology b) Oncology 

c) Etiology d) Nosology

14. The cancerous cells are enclosed in

a capsule in

a) Leukemias   b) Malignant tumour 

c) Benign tumour

d) Cancerous tumour

15. Carcinoma is the cancer of

a) Epithelial cells

b) Connective tissue cells

c) Bone cells d) Blood cells

16. Cadmium oxide causes the cancer of

a) Sweat gland b) Prostate gland 

c) Sebaceous gland d) Pituitary gland

17. The virus of AIDS attacks on system

of man

a) Circulatory b) Respiratory

c) Digestive d) Immune

18. AIDS was first reported in 

a) Russia b) France 

c) U.S.A d) Germany

19. AIDS is transmitted through 

a) hand shake b) courtship 

c) blood transfusion   d) mosquito

20.Typhoid is caused by the infection

from

a) Salmonella typhi    b) fungi 

c) virus d) rickettsias

21. The pathogen of the typhoid is

derictly transmitted through

a) blood b) water

c) cerebrospinal fluid d) urine 

22. The Intestinal hemorrhage is the

symptom of typhoid occurring in

week of infection

a) Vth      b) Ist c) IInd     d) IIIrd

23. Typhoid is caused by 

a) virus b) bacteria 

c) protozoans d) helminthes

24. AIDS could develop due to 

a) defective thymus   b) defective liver c) defective immune system   d) HIV

25. No vaccine is available to prevent 

a) Polio b) Tuberculosis 

c) Tetanus d) AIDS

26. Sarcoma is the cancer of

a) Epithelial tissue.

b) Connective tissue

c) Endodermal tissue

d) Ectodermal tissue

27. Widal test is employed for diagnosis

of 

a) Cholera b) Yellow fever 

c) Typhoid d) Malaria

28. Carcinoma is a cancer of 

a) Epithelial cells b) Bone 

c) Cartiage d) Adipose tissue

29. Epestein-Barr virus may cause 

a) Typhoid       b) Kaposis sarcoma 

c) AIDS d) None of these

30. AIDS in not transmitted by

a) Unsterilised syringes

b) Infected blood transfusion

c) Insect vector

d) Sharing of both brushes

31. TAB is the vaccine against

a) AIDS b) Small pox

c) Cancer d) Typhoid

32. The pathogen of one of the following

diseases takes faeco-oral route 

a) Cancer b) Scabies 

c) AIDS d) Typhoid

33. Pap test is for the screening of 

a) AIDS b) Cancer 

c) Typhoid d) None of these

34. Widal test is for the diagnosis of 

a) AIDS b) Cancer 

c) Typhoid d) None of these

35. Pathogen of typhoid is a

a) Virus b) Fungus

c) Bacteria d) None of these

36. Purification of drinking water is a

preventive measure for 

a) AIDS b) Cancer 

c) Typhoid d) All the above

37. Presence of san enzyme reverse 

transcriptase is a characteristic 

feature of

a) Virus of cancer     b) Sntyphi

c) HIV d) Both b and c

38. The disease present right from birth

is called

a) contageous disease

b) congential disease  

c) acquired disease

d) degenerative disease

39. Presence of hard lump is a sympton

of 

a) AIDS b) typhoid 

c) Cancer        d) leprosy

40. Most common drug used in cancer

treatement is

a) Vincristine b) Ampicillin

c) Zidovidine d) HPA-23

41. ELISA test is used for the diagnosis of

a) cancer b) typhoid

c) hepatitis d) AIDS

42. Which of the following disease

spreads by contaminated food or 

water

a) Cancer b) AIDS

c) Typhoid d) Allergy

43. HIV belongs to which family

a) Retroviridae b) Picorna viridae

c) Lentivirus d) None of these

44. Which is a non-communicable 

disease

a) cancer b) AIDS

c) Typhoid d) Chicken pox

45. AIDS-related complexities are seen

in which stage of AIDS        

a) Blind-stage b) Second-stage

c) First-stage d) Third-stage

46. HPA-23 is used against which 

disease

a) Hepatitis b) cancer

c) Thyphoid d) AIDS

47. Breast cancer is a type of 

a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma 

c) Lymphoma d) Leukemia

48. AIDS was first reported in 

a) 1986, India b) 1981, USA 

c) 1981, Africa d) 19.85, France

49. Benign Tumour is

a) harmful b) wicked

c) capsulated      d) noncapsulated

50. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of

a) Cancer b) Leprosy 

c) AIDS d) Typhoid

51. Human papilloma virus causes 

cancer of

a) mouth b) Cervix

c) urinary bladder    d) skin

52. Diameter of HIV is 

a) 100 mm b) 10 nm 

c) 100 nm d) 1000 nm

53. Cancers of the epithelium are 

a) Carcinomas b) Sarcoma 

c) Lymphoma  d) Leukemia

54. Sarcomas are cancers of

a) Epithelial tissue  

b) Connective tissue 

c) Lymphocytes d) Leucocytes

55. Blood cancer is

a) Leukemia b) Carcinoma

c)  Sarcoma d) Lymphoma

56. Causes of cancer can be 

a) Chemical agents b) Viruses

c) Genetic d d) All of these

57. Treatment of cancer can be by 

a) Surgery b) Radiation 

c) Chemotherpy        d) All of these

58. HIV has

a) Lipoprotein envelop

b) RNA genome

c) Reverse transcreiptase

d) All of these

59. AIDS can be spread by

a) Infected needle and syrings

b) Saliva c) Mosquito bites

     d) Swimming pools

50. Other diseases associated with are 

a) Kaposi sarcoma     b) Pneumonia

c) Dementia d) All of these

61. AIDS is caused by HIV invading

a) Helper T cells   b) Killer T cells

c) B cells d) Suppressor T cells

62.The drug Zidovudine used in AIDS

therapy acts by

a) Inhibiting reverse transcriptase

b) Killing HIV

c) Controlling angiogenesus

d) Vaccine action 

63. Typhoid fever is caused by

a) Salmonella  b) E. Coli

c) Bacillus d) Hepatitis A virus

64.Salmonella serotyping can be done by

  a) O antigen b) H antigen

c) Vi antigen d) All of these

65. The mortality of untreated typhoid

cases is about

a) 20%   b) 50%    c) 80%    d) 2%

66. Salmonella bacteria causing typhoid

fever can be isolated from 

a) Faeces b) Urine 

c) Blood d) All of these

67. Drugs that have been used to treat 

typhoid fever include 

a) Chloramphenicol   b) Amoxillin 

c) Ciprofloxacin d) All of these

68. To detect AIDS the test conducted is

a) ELISA b) Biopsy

c) Widal test d) None of these

69. Typhoid is cause due to

a) Bacteria b) Fungi 

c) Virus d) Mosquito

70. HIV is a

a) ds DNA                 b) ds RNA 

c) ss RNA                  d) ss DNA

71. AIDS is a

a) Endemic disease

b) Pandemic disease

c) Epidemic disease

d) Sporadic disease        

72. HIV attacts 

a) B-cells  b) Antigen presenting cells c) Helper T-cells      d) None of these

73. AIDS is characterised by a sharp 

reduction in

a) Killer T-cells     b) B-Lymphocytes

c) Suppressor T-cells

d) Helper T-cells

74. The confirmatory test used to 

diagnose AIDS is

a) ELISA-test b) PCR

c) Western blot d) Widal test

75. AZT is used in the treatment of

a) Typhoid b) Malaria

c) Cancer             d) AIDS