MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
1. Genetic material should be -
a) Ubiquitous
b) Able to permit diversity
c) Capable of replication
d) All of above
2. Complete set of chromosomes inherited as a unit from one parent
is known as
a) Karyotype b) Gene pool
c) Genome d) Genotype
3. The change of non-virulent strain of the bacterium into virulent
strain is called
a)Transduction b) Transformation
c) Transcription d) Translation
4. the agent for
bacterial transformation was found to be DNA by --
a)Griffith
b) Hershey and Chase
c) Avery, Mc Carty and Macleod
d) Meselson and Stahl
5. The structure of nuclear membrane
facilitates -
a) Organisation
of spindle
b) Synapsis of homologous
chromosomes during meiosis
c) Nucleo - cytoplasmic exchange of material
d) Anaphasic separation of daughter chromosomes
6. The chromatin thread is made up of
a)Lipoproteins
b) phospholipids
c) Nucleoproteins d) Glycoproteins
7. Solenoid is made up of --
a) Genes
b) Alleles
c) Chromosomes d)
Nucleosomes
8. Extranuclear DNA is present in-
a)
Chloroplast b) Mitochondria
c)
Ribosome d) Both a and b
9. The hydrophilic nature of DNA is due to presence of -
a) Deoxyribose sugar b)
phosphate group
c) Thymine base d)
Hydrogen bonds
10. In a DNA molecule the sugars -
a) Bond covalently to phosphate group
b) Bond covalently to nitrogen base
c) Bond to nitrogen base by hydrogen
bond
d)
Bond to both phosphate group and
nitrogen base by covalent bonds
11. DNA is --
a)
Right handed coiling and parallel
b)
Right handed coiling and antiparallel
c)Left
handed coiling and antiparallel
d)
Left handed coiling and parallel
12. DNA synthesis takes place in --
a)
Interphase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase
13. Which stage is known for DNA
replication?
a) Metaphase
b) S - phase
c) S - phase
d) G2 phase
14. Origin of DNA replication is --
a)One
in all organisms
b)One
in prokaryotes and several in eukaryotes
c) One in eukaryotes and several in prokaryotes
d) Several in almost all organisms
15. Which of the following is needed during DNA replication ?
a)
RNA polymerase and translocase
b)
DNA polymerase and DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase only
d)
DNA ligase only
16. Ligase enzyme is used for
a) Denaturation of DNA
b) Splitting of DNA into small bits
c) Joining bits of DNA
d) Digestion of lipids
17. DNA is believed to be the genetic material because
a) All the body cells of an individual
seem to have identical amounts and composition of DNA
b) The proteins are the same from cell to cell in an individual but the DNA differs; the DNA must be the material that makes different tissues different.
c) DNA is the largest type of macro -molecule found in living
organisms
d) DNA is found in the cell muscles
18. Plasmids consist of-
a) Circular double stranded DNA
b) Circular single stranded DNA
c) Straight single stranded DNA
d) None of these
19. Plasmids have genes for sexuality, antibiotic resistance etc. hence
a plasmid is said to be
a)
A vital gene but without it the cell can
survive
b)
An unimportant gene but necessary for survival of any cell can survive
c) A vital gene and without it a cell cannot survive
d) Not a vital gene, and a cell can survive without it.
20. RNA is polymer of --
a) Deoxyribonucleosides b)
Ribonucleoside
c) Deoxyribonucleotides d)
Ribonucleotides
21. Similarity
between DNA and RNA lies in -
a)Similar sugar
b) Double stranded nature
c) Being polymers of nucleotides
d) Similar pyrimidines
22. The correct statement is --
a) RNA is double stranded
b) RNA is single stranded
c) Most cellular RNA is single stranded
d) Both double and single RNA are present in equal amount
23. All the three types of RNA mainly function in -
a) Replication b)
Synthesis of proteins
c) Synthesis of carbohydrates
d) Both a and c
24. The types of RNA specifically responsible for directing the proper sequence of amino acids
in protein synthesis is
a)
Ribosomal RNA b) Messenger RNA
c) Chromosomal RNA d) None of the above
25. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATC GCT CCA then the sequence
of bases in m- RNA produced from it will
be--
a) AAG CGT CCT b) AUG
CGU CCA
c) UAG CGA GGU d) TAU CUT UUA
26. The triple code is read from ---
a) 5' ----> 3' direction
b) 3' ----> 5' direction
c) At any point
d) In any direction
27. UAA, UAG and UGA are
a) Starting codons b)
Degenerate codons
c) Non - overlapping codons
d) Non - senses codons
28. The termination codon is -
a) UAG (Amber) b) UAA (ochre)
c) UGA (opal) d) All of
these
29. In a codon, wobbling is generally
restricted to -
a) First nitrogen base
b) Second nitrogen base
c) Third nitrogen base
d) Aromatic amino aids
30. Which of the following is translated completely?
1] AUG UGA UUA
AAG AAA
2] AUG AUA UUG
CCC UGA
3] AGU CCC AGA CUC
UAA
4] AUG UAC AGU
AAC UAG
a) 1and 2 b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
31. In protein synthesis, polymerization of amino acids involves three
steps. Which one of the following is not involved in it -?
a)Elongation
b) Transcription
c) Termination
d) Initiation
32. Transcription is process of -
a) m- RNA formation over DNA
b) Protein synthesis over ribosome
c) Digestion by lysosomes
d) Formation of mitochondrion
33. The portion of DNA which contains information for an entire
polypeptide is called -
a) Cistron
b) Muton
c) Recon
d) Operon
34. Enzyme useful for synthesis of m - RNA transcription is
a) RNA - polymerase b) DNA - polymerase
c) Ligase d) Non - sense strand
35. Arrangement of amino acids by t-RNA
according to the information present on m- RNA is called
a) Transcription
b) Translocation
c) Translation
d) Transformation
36. The initiation of polypeptide chain requires
a)Initiation factors
b) GTP
c) Either a or b
d)Both a and b
37. Prokaryotic 70S ribosome break into
a) 40S and 30S b)
50S and 30S
c) 45S and 25S d)
50S and 20S
38. In protein synthesis loaded t-RNA
enter the ribosome from A site except
a) t- RNA carrying methionine
b) t- RNA carrying serine
c) t- RNA carrying arginine
d) t- RNA carrying tryptophan
39. According to most recent studies each chromosome consists of
a) A single double helical DNA
b) Variable number of DNA
c) Many small linked DNA
d) Small wrapped DNA helices
40. The substance that acts as connecting link between two generations
is
a) Ribonucleic acid b)Nucleoplasm
c) Deoxyribonucleic
acid
d) Ribonucleic acid +Deoxyribonucleic acid
41. The chromosomes are generally stained by
a) Aniline blue b)
Gentian violet
c) Acetocarmine d)
Erythrosine
42. The number of coils formed by the DNA molecule around a protein core for forming a
nucleosome
a) 2 b) 2 c)2 d) 1
43. Ribose is
a) Monosaccharide b)
Disaccharide
c) Polysaccharide d) None of the above
44. Due to coiling of the DNA molecule, vertically running grooves are
formed. Such grooves are
a)Two major and one minor
b) One major and two minor
c) Two major and two minor
d) One major and one minor
45. The term plasmid was introduced by
a) Jacob
b) Wollman
c) Lederberg d)
Tatum
46. The extra genomic DNA segments of bacteria are known as....
a) Episomes b) Plasmid
c) Lederberg
d) Tatum
47. Exact replication of DNA is possible due to
a) Genetic code
b) Mitosis
c) Base pairing rule
d) DNA enclosed in a membrane
48. Polysome do not contain
a) m- RNA
b) t- RNA
c) r - RNA
d) DNA
49. Gram stain is
a) A strain produced out of gram seed
b) A trade marks
c) A staining technique developed by the Danish Scientist Gram
d) Chemical to differentiate of bacteria
50. In DNA replication, the primer is
a) A small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
b) Small ribonucleotide polymer
c) Helix destabilising protein
d) Enzyme taking part in joining nucleotides to their
complementary template bases
51. Topoisomerase is involved in
a) Producing RNA primer
b) Joining DNA segments
c) Producing nick in DNA
d) Synthesis of RNA
52. The proteins having similar amino acids may differ because
a) Amino acid sequence is different
b) Being formed by different ribosomes
c) They perform different functions
d) They are formed at different times
53. Autocatalytic function of DNA means
a) Synthesis of RNA b) Synthesis of proteins
c) Synthesis of DNA d) All of these
54. A feature common to nucleus, chloroplast and mitochondria is the
presence of
a) Nucleic acid
b) Cytoplasm
c) Cristae
d) Lamellae
55. A short length of DNA molecule contains 120 adenine and 120
cytosine bases . The total number of nucleotides in this DNA fragment is
a) 480
b) 120
c) 60
d) 240
56. The contribution of cytoplasmic DNA in the cell's total DNA is
a) 65 to 75%
b) 45 to 50 %
c) 1 to 5%
d) 95 to 99%
57. The gene are made up of
a) Histones
b) Polynucleosides
c) Nucleosides d)
Polynucleotides
58. Who coined the term gene ?
a) Morgan b)
Johansen
c) Mendel d)
Jensen
59. Protein does not constitute genetic material because it
a) It is not ubiquitous
b) Does not possess diversity
c) Does not possess ability of replication
d) Is a small molecule
60. The modern concept of gene is
a) A segment of DNA capable of crossing over
b) A functional unit of DNA
c) A segment of DNA
d) A segment of chromosome
61. Who discovered transformation in bacteria ?
a) Griffith b) Meselson and Stahl
c) Hershey and chase
d) Watson and crick
62. The scientist who separated and
identified the chemical which showed transformation were
a) Griffith b)
Avery Macleod , McCarty
c) Lederberg and Zinder
d) Meselson and Stahl
63. Transduction is a
a) Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another
through bacteriophage
b) Transfer of genetic material by using DNA extract
c) Transfer of genetic material by sexual reproduction
d) None of above
64. Nucleic acid is composed of following elements
a) C, H, O,
N, P
b) C, H, N, Ca,
P
c) C, H, O,
P, Pb
d) C, Fe, O, P, N
65. Nucleus of bacteria is called
a) Chromosome b)
Nucleolus
c) Mesosome d)
Nucleoid
66. Normally GUG specifies valine amino acid but when this is
initiation codon then it specifies which one of the following amino acids.
a) Valine
b) Threonine
c) Methionine d)
Lysine
67. Winding of DNA around a core of
histones result in a structure called
a) Nucleosome
b) Nucleus
c) Chromosomes d)
Chromonema
68. Watson and Crick are known for their discovery that DNA
a) Is a single stranded helix
b) Contain deoxyribose only
c) Is a double stranded helix
d) Synthesis of r- RNA
69. In nucleotide nitrogen base is attached to
a) First carbon of sugar
b) Third carbon of sugar
c) Fifth carbon of sugar
d) Fourth carbon of sugar
70. The two strands of DNA are
a) Similar and complementary
b) Antiparallel and complementary
c) Different
d)Antiparallel and non-complementary
71. Backbone of DNA stand is build-up of
a) Nitrogen base phosphate and deoxyribose sugar base
b) Alternate nitrogen base and phosphate
c) Alternate nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar
d) Alternate phosphate and deoxyribose sugar
72. Okazaki segments are
a) DNA segment capable of free replication
b) DNA segment formed during replication
c) Nucleotide segments formed during transcription
d) Segment of gene which undergo
mutation and recombination
73. Nobel Prize for the concept of
jumping gene was awarded to
a) Korenberg b)
Mc. Lintock
c) Khorana
d) Watson
74. Clover leaf model for t- RNA was proposed by
a) Holley
b) Khorana
c) Nirenberg
d) Lederberg
75. Genetic code determines
a) Structure pattern of an organism
b) Sequence of amino acid in protein chain
c) Variation in off spring
d) Constancy of morphological trait
76. Out of 64 codons in genetic code
how many codons are responsible for specifying 20 amino acids
a) 20
b) 59
c) 61 d) 64
77. The wobble effect is
a) Lack of precision with regard to the third base of
anticodon and codon
b) Instability of DNA molecule when unbound
c) Instability of pairing when purine pairs with another purine
d) Undulating movement of m- RNA
78. Which of the following is proper
sequence in protein synthesis ?
a)Translation t- RNA amino acid complex - peptide chain
b) t - RNA amino acid complex - peptide chain - transcription
c) t- RNA amino acid complex - peptide chain - initiation
d) Transcription- t- RNA amino acid
79. Which is the correct sequence of code. transfer involve in the
formation of polypeptide ?
a) DNA - t-RNA -
r-RNA - m-RNA
b) t-RNA - DNA -
m-RNA - r-RNA
c) m-RNA - t-RNA
- DNA -
Amino acid
d) DNA - m- RNA -
t-RNA - Amino acid
80. The core of nucleosome is made up of
a) H3, H2A, H2B, H1 b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4 d) H2A, H2B, H3, H4
81. A plasmid is a
a) Bacteriophage
b) DNA molecule incorporated in the bacterial chromosome
c) DNA molecule present in
mitochondria
d) A small circular DNA molecule capable of self-replication
82. Those enzymes which break specific nucleotide sequences are called
as
a) Nucleases b) Endonucleases
c) Exonucleases d)
Restriction enzymes
83. The m- RNA sequence AUG CAG GAU ACG recognises four amino acids and
this character to the code is referred
to as
a) Degeneracy b) Universality
c) Non - ambiguity d) Comma lessness
84. During transcription base sequence in RNA is complementary to
one strand of DNA except for the
substitution
a) A for G b) U
for C
c) U for T d) C
for T
85. Which one is an amino acid ?
a) CH2-CH - NH2COOH
b) NH2CH2CH2 COOH
c) CH3-CHNH2COCI
d) CH3-CH2-COH3
86. the unidirectional
flow of information is carried out from
DNA to RNA to protein referred to as the
a)Central dogma of molecular biology
b) Circular flow of information
c) Reverse central dogma
d) None of these
87. Wobble hypothesis was proposed by
a) Niren burg b) Korn burg
c) Crick
d)
None
88. In the protein synthesis t- RNA
carrying the amino acid enter from which site of ribosome
a) a- site
b)
P - site
c) Anticodon site d) Recognition site
89. The function of non-sense codon is
a) To release polypeptide chain from t- RNA
b) To from an in specified amino acid
c) To terminate the message of protein synthesis
d) To convert a sense DNA into non-sense DNA
90. Which is correct sequence according to mole.wt.
a) t-RNA - DNA - t-
RNA
b) r-RNA - DNA - t-
RNA
c) DNA - r- RNA - DNA
d) t- RNA - r-RNA - DNA
91. Sigma factor is component of ......
a) DNA ligase b) DNA
polymerase e
c) RNA polymerase
d) Dissociation factor
92. An episomes is
a) A genetic particle which can exist in either cytoplasm or
in DNA
b) A segment of DNA capable of an independent replication
c) A segment of DNA deleted as a result of mutation
d) None of these
93. Which one of the following is the
most specific region on t- RNA?
a) Amino acid attachment site
b) Amino acid recognition site
c) Codon recognition site
d) Ribosome recognition site
94. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because
a) There are 64 types of t-RNA found in cell
b) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acid
c) There are 64 amino acids to be coded
d) Genetic code is triplet
95. Dr hargovind Khurana
has been awarded noble prize for
researches in
a) Artificial DNA synthesis
b) Artificial RNA synthesis
c) Genetic code d)
Amino acid
96. The protein which unwind DNA molecule during replication are called as
a)Topoisomerases b)
Helicases
c) Primases
d) All of these
97. The genes that keep on changing
their location on chromosome are
a) Pleiotropic genes b)
Jumping genes
c) Duplicate genes d)
Split genes
98. During protein synthesis the correct amino acid is brought to the ribosome and
inserted in correct sequence in the growing
polypeptide chain by
a) Base pairing between DNA and m-RNA
b) Base pairing between m- RNA codon
and anticodon in t- RNA
c) Interaction between two anticodons
d) Interaction between two triplets’
codons
99. Polysomes are
a) Cell organelles in prokaryotes
b) Ribosomes attached to messenger
c) Cell organelles in eukaryotes
d) Chain of nucleosomes
100. Which of the function is not performed by DNA?
a) Synthesis of protein
b) Transmission of hereditary character
c) Synthesis of carbohydrates
d) Replication
101. RNA is a genetic material in
a) All viruses
b) Some viruses
c) Bacteria
d) Prokaryotes
102. the first amino acid in
any polypeptide chain in prokaryotes is
a) Formylated arginine b)
Lysine
c) Formylated methionine
d) Methionine
103. Purines of DNA / RNA are
a) Uracil and guanine
b) Uracil and cytosine
c) Adenine and guanine
d) Cytosine and Guanine
104. Ribosome are made up of
a) DNA only
b) RNA only
c) r- RNA + protein d)
DNA + protein
105. Mark the correct statement
a) Histones are acidic proteins
b) Histones stimulate genetic activity
c) Both of these d)
None of these
106. The codon which specify same amino acid ( Eg. CAU and CAC) are
called
a) synonyms b) Start signal
c) Anonyms d)
Stop signal
107. The hereditary material in Tobacco Mosaic Virus is a :
a) Double - stranded DNA
b) Single - stranded RNA
c) single -
stranded DNA
d) Double - stranded RNA
108. Which of the following are associated with bacterial chromo-some ?
a) Linear DNA b) Histones
c) Plasmids d)
All the three
109. What is the genetic
material in influenza virus
a) RNA
b) Single- stranded linear DNA
c) Double - stranded linear DNA
d) Circular DNA
110. Which of the following nucleotide sequences has 4 pyrimidine
bases ?
a) GCUAGACAA b)
UAGCGGUAA
c) GATCAATGC d)
Both a and b
111. The phenomenon of
transformation in Diplococcus pneumoniae was
discovered by
a) Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty
b) Griffith
c) Hershey and Chase
d) Morgan
112. A nucleoside is
a) A pentose sugar + a nitrogen base
b) A nucleotide minus phosphate
c) A pentose sugar + a phosphate
d) Both a and b
113. In the polynucleotide strands of the nucleic acids, the nucleotides are joined by
the
a) Peptide linkage
b) H - bonds
c) High energy phosphatic bond
d) Phosphodiester bonds
114. Kornberg and Thomas
proposed
a) The nucleosome solenoid model
b) That RNA is the genetic material in some viruses
c) The term 'gene' for 'factor'
d) that the prokaryotic DNA is circular
115. DNA nucleotide differs from RNA nucleotide in
a) Having Uracil as a pyrimidine base
b) Having Ribose sugar
c) Having Deoxyribose sugar
d) All the above three
116. Each complete helix (spiral) of eukaryotic DNA has
a) Ten pairs of nucleotides
b) Ten nucleotides in each strand
c) Ten base pairs
d) All the above three
117. In a DNA double helix, the distance
between the two strands is
a) 34 Ao b)
20 Ao . c
c) 3.4 Ao d)
15 Ao
118. Double stranded RNA is
present in
a) Bacterium E.coli
b) Reovirus
c) Chloroplast
d) TMV
119. RNA plays major role in
the synthesis of
a) Amino acids
b) Nucleotides
c)
Ribosomes d) Enzymes
120. If a DNA has 20 Adenine and 30 Cytosine bases. What will be the total number of purine bases in the given sample ?
a) 20 b) 30 c) 50 d) 100
121.The experimental proof
for the semi conservative replication of DNA by
using nitrogen 14N and 15N was provided by
a) Nirenberg and Mathai
b) Kornberg and Thomas
c) Nirenberg and Khorana
d) Meselson and Stahl
122. Which one of the following helps to unwind DNA
double helix in front of the replication
fork during DNA replication ?
a) DNA helicase
b) DNA polymerase - I
c) DNA ligase d) DNA synthetase
123. During DNA replication,
the formation of new DNA strand always takes place
a) In 3' -----> 5' direction of template strand
b) In 5' -----> 3' direction of the new strand
c) In 5' -----> 3' direction of the lagging template
strand
d)
Both a and b
124. The formation of new strand on the DNA template can be initiated only by the
a) RNA primer b) DNA primer
c) DNA polymerase
d) DNA endonuclease
125. The octamer core of nucleosome contains two molecules each of the following histones
a) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
b) H1, H2A, H2B, H3
c) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
d) H1, H2B, H3, H4
126. Extrachromosomal
circular mini - DNA which can be
incorporated in the main chromosomal
DNA is called
a) Daughter DNA b)
Adapter DNA
c) Episome
d) Lysosome
127. q mode of replication is seen in
a) All prokaryotes
b) All eukaryotes
c) In bacteria
d) In plant viruses
128. Maximum formation of m - RNA occurs in
a) Cytoplasm
b) Nucleolus
c) Nucleoplasm
d) Ribosome
129. The
m-RNA language is also known as
a) Cryptogram
b) Cryptogam
c) Cryptoanalysis d)
All the above
130. A, G, C and U are known as the alphabets
of the m-RNA language .In the formation of the 64 codons in the dictionary of
genetic code, these alphabets are to be used in the following sequence
a) A,G,C,U,
b) A,U,G,C,
c) U,C,A,G,
d) U,A,G,C,
131. The genetic code of triplets was confirmed by
a) Gamow b) Khorana
c) Kornberg and Sinsheimar
d) Crick
132. In the dictionary of genetic code, how many codons signify
different amino acids required for protein synthesis?
a) 64. b)
61. c) 60. d) 63.
133. The Wobble hypothesis was proposed by:
a) Watson and Crick
b) Khorana.
c) Nirenberg and Ochoa.
d) Crick
134. Point out the odd one from the following :
a) UAC. b) UAG c) UAA
d) UGA.
135. DNA generally acts as a
template for :
a) Protein, DNA, RNA.
b) Only protein and DNA
c) Only DNA and RNA.
d) Only DNA.
136. Reading from 3' end of
DNA template, if the sequence of the bases on DNA strand is A-T-G, what would
be the sequence of bases in the complementary anticodon reading from 3'end
of the t-RNA?
a) U- A- C b) A- U- G
c) A-T- G d) T- A- C
137. In
the AA - t RNA complex, the amino acid is bound to the t RNA at the
a) 3' end with C - C - A base sequence
b) 5' end with C - C - A base sequence
c) 3' end with G nucleotide
d) 5' end with G nucleotide
138. Activation of amino acid during protein synthesis uses energy from
a)GTP
b) ATP
c) ADP
d) AMP
139. There are 64 codons in the dictionary of genetic code, because
genetic code is
a)Degenerate b)
Universal
c) Wobble
d)
Triplet
140. Dose not consume ATP
energy.
a) Amino acid activation
b) Translocation
c) Translocation
d) Aminoacyl I - t RNA complex `binding to A- site
141. A
small segment of eukaryote DNA contains 75 guanine and 75 thymine bases. The
total number of nucleotides in this segment of DNA is
a) 75 b) 150
c) 300 d) 450
142. Suppose a complete
polypeptide chain contains 100 amino acid molecules. How many nitrogen bases
will be involved in the genetic code on the m- RNA for the formation and
release of such polypeptide chain
a)100 b) 300 c) 303 d)306
143. Which one of the following is the cause of the wobble phenomenon ?
a) Over crowing of amino acid during protein synthesis
b) Interference of extra codons on m- RNA.
c) Non- availability of proper t-RNA `molecules.
d) Degeneracy of the genetic code.
144. The following are the codon -anticodon pairs.
Identify the pair showing effect of the degeneracy of genetic code
a) AUG - UAC
b) UUA - AAG
c) AAC - UUG
d) GUG - CAC
145. 'Genome' represents
a) Total number of chromosomes in a cell.
b) Total number of genes presents on a chromosome compliment.
c) Total number of genes presents on all the chromosome
compliment
d) Total number of genes presents on the diploid set of chromosomes.
146. DNA
duplication occurs during
a)Mitosis only b) Meiosis only
c)Meiosis- I only
d) Meiosis-II and mitosis
147. The anticodon on t-RNA which can identify specific codon on m- RNA is also
Known as
a) Genetic code
b) Triplet
c) Nodoc
d)
Codon
148. The degeneracy of
genetic code and economy of number of t- RNA in a cell can be explained by
a) Watson and Crick model
b) Chargaff’s rule
c) Wobble hypothesis
d) Lyon hypothesis
149. Who provided the first clear evidence to
establish DNA as the genetic material?
a) Avery, Macleod and Mc Carty
b) Hershey and Chase
c) Lederberg and Zinder
d) Franki - Conrai and Singer
150. Double stranded DNA is presents in
a) M 13 phage b) f
d phage
c) Reovirus d) Bacterium E. coli.
151. The octamer core of nucleosome is made of a total of 8 molecules
of
a) 8 types of histones
b)4 types of histones
c) one type of histones
d)Two types of histones
152. Suppose a particular segment of a DNA is 100 base pairs long then
it
a) Be 340 Ao long
b)contain 100 nucleotides
c) Contain 100 bases
d) All of these
153. Suppose a molecule of m- RNA contains 25 Adenine and 25 Guanine
bases. Then it must
a) Be 100 nucleotides long
b) Contain 25 uracil and 25 cytosine bases
c) Be 50 base pairs long
d) None of these
154. If a DNA strand is 340 Ao long, then is should contain
a) 340 bases
b) 100 nucleotide
c) Contain a N- base
d) All of these
155. A nucleoside phosphate
a) Contains a pentose sugar
b) Is a nucleotide
c) Contain a N- base.
d) All of these
156. A bacterium containing 100% N15 nitrogen
bases is allowed to replicate in a medium containing N14 bases. After one round of duplication, the
result would be
a) all individuals would be identical parents
b) all individuals would be radioactive but the percentage of
radioactivity in DNA would be 50%
c) only 50% individuals would be radioactive
d) all individuals would be similar to parents but different
among themselves.
157. A bacterium E. coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to
replicate in a non-radioactive medium for two generations. What % of the
bacteria should contain radioactive DNA?
a) 100% b)
50% c) 25% d) 12.5%
158. If one wants to obtain precise information regarding the exact
time and location of synthesis of new DNA, which of the following methods would
be most effective for such study ?
a) Electron microscopy b)
Carbon dating
c) Isolating and extracting DNA after regular intervals and
estimating DNA among
d) Using radioactive precursors of nucleic acids
159) Experiments using N15 (heavy
nitrogen) to confirm the semiconservative replication of DNA were carried out
by
a) Meselson and Stahl
b) Hershey and Chase
c) Beadle and Tatum
d) Watson and Crick
160) In an E.coli cell, according to the operon theory, an operator
gene combines with
a) inducer gene to 'switch on' structural gene transcription
b) regulator gene to 'switch off' structural gene
transcription
c) regulator protein to 'switch off' structural gene
transcription
d) regulator protein to 'switch on' structural gene
transcription
161) According to operon concept, the regulatory gene regulates
biochemical reaction in a cell by
a) inhibiting transcription
b) inactivating enzymes
c) inactivating substrate
d) inhibiting migration of mRNA
162) Lac operon is related to the
a) synthesis of enzyme of lactose anabolism
b) synthesis of enzyme of lactose catabolism
c) synthesis of lac by lac insect
d) degradation of lac in the body of lac-insect
163) The lac operon requires a 'helper' protein which, by binding to the
promoter and by facilitating the attachment of RNA polymerase, accelerates the
rate of transcription. The protein is
a) amino acid activating enzyme
b) essential metabolite
c) inactive repression protein
d) catabolite activator protein
164) Addition of lactose in a culture of E.coli induces enzymes.... to
breakdown the lactose into glucose and galactose.
a) b-galactosidase and transacetylase
b) transacetylase and permease
c) b-galactosidase, permease, transacetylase
d) None of the above
165) A regulatory gene produces some kind of protein through its mRNA
that control the activity of the operator gene, which signals the formation of
specific enzymes required for the metabolic breakdown of the food. How does
that protein regulate the activity of the operator gene ?
a) The repressor protein produced after combining with an
inducer activates the operator gene
b) The repressor protein produced after combining with a
corepressor activates the operator gene
c) the catabolic activator protein (CAP) produced activates
the operator gene
d) The mutated repressor protein produced activates the
operator gene
166) If following is the sequences of nucleotides in mRNA, predict the
sequence of amino acids coded by it
AUG UUU UUC UUC UUU UUU UUC
a) Met-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe-Phe
b) Met-Phe-Leu-Leu-Phe-Phe-Phe
c) Ser-Leu-Phe-Leu-Phe-Leu-Phe
d) Arg-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu-Leu
167) After crossing two plants, the progenies are found to be male
sterile. The phenomenon is found to be maternally inherited and is due to some
gene, which reside in
a) nucleus chloroplast b)
chloroplast
c) mitochondria d)
cytoplasm
168) Genetic code translates the language of
a) RNA into that of proteins
b) proteins into that of RNA
c) amino acids that into that of RNA
d) RNA into that of DNA
169) Sigma factor is a component of
a) DNA ligase b)
DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase) Dissociation factor
170) Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in
a) plasmid b)
nucleus
c) chromosome d)
plastid
171) Producing a giant mouse in the laboratory was possible through
the
a) gene mutation b)
gene duplication
c) gene synthesis d)
gene manipulation
172) The smallest unit of
genetic material, which when mutated produces a phenotypic effect, is
a) recon b)
muton
c) nucleic acid d)
cistron
173) Replication of DNA in
eukaryotes commences from
a) one end of chromatid extending to the other end
b) the centromeres to either of the ends of chromatids
c) several sites along the DNA of the chromatid
simultaneously
d) both ends of the chromatid simultaneously
174) In split genes, the coding sequences are
a) exons b)
introns
c) cistrons d)
operons
175) The translation step in the process of protein synthesis, which
is the conversion of the language of nucleic acids into that of proteins, is
made by a form of
a) mRNA b)
rRNA
c) tRNA d)
template DNA
176) Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
Mutagens can be
a) analogues of bases
b) agents that make bases labile and permit substitution
c) substances that interfere with the fidelity of nucleic
acid replication
d) agents that catalyse or retard chemical reactions
177) TMV infects a variety of plants, including Zinnia (family -
Compositae) and tobacco (family - Solanaceae). When TMV-RNA is used for
infection, the amino acid sequence of the coat protein of the progeny is the
same whether the host of Zinnia or tobacco. This proves that the genetic code
is
a) degenerate b)
universal
c) unidirectional d)
non-overlapping
178) Amino acids polymerise at the ribosome
a) amino group of the first amino acid (methionine) with the
carboxyl group of the second, producing a peptide bond and releasing a molecule
of water
b) carboxyl group of the first amino acid (methionine) with
that of the second, producing a peptide bond and releasing a molecule of water
c) carboxyl group of the first amino acid (methionine) with
the amino group of the second, producing a peptide bond and releasing a
molecule of water
d) amino group of the first amino acid (methionine) with that
of the second, producing a peptide bond and releasing a molecule of water.
179) The gene, which produces mRNA has specific start and stop
signals, which have the same structure whether they are read from left to right
to left. This is because
a) the base sequence is the same either way
b) they have the same base repeated many times
c) they have only one base
d) they have only one codon
180) Which of the following is not true for an anticodon?
a) It consists of three nucleotides
b) It is the basic unit of the genetic code
c) It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule
d) It may pair with more than one codon, especially if it has
the base inosine in its third position.
Kudos on providing practical tips that are easy to implement! Aslo read this post about target PMT
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