Practice
questions
Unit
7
Genetics
and evolution
101. The
appearance of a hidden character in plants of F2 proclaims the law of
a) Purity of gametes
b) Law of dominance
c) Law of independent assortment
d) Law of segregation
102. Law of purity of gametes is
a) I law b) II law
c) III law d)
Not a Mendel law
103. In test cross the plants obtained are
a) All
dominant b) All recessive
c) Some
dominant and some recessive
d) Dominant
and recessive in 1:1 ratio
104. When F1 Plants is crossed with a dominant parent, the plants which are
obtained are
a) All
recessive b) All dominant
c) Some
recessive some dominant
d) Recessive
: Dominant (1:1)
105. The validity of F1 is determined by
a) Breeding brother and sister of F1generation
b) Back crossing one or more of F1 individuals
c) Test crossing one or more of F1 individual
d) Producing large progeny
106. Test cross is used to test whether an
individual is
a) Heterozygous b) Homozygous
c) Hemizygous d) Both a and b
107. Back cross devised by Mendel is used by plant
breeders to
a) Demonstrate the law of independent
assortment
b) Exploit hybrid vigour
c) Demonstrate polygenic trails
d) Improve a variety by making a useful trait
homozygous
108. Which of the following is test cross?
a) Tt x Tt b) Tt x TT
c) Tt x tt d) None
109. Term from the following is not introduced by
Mendel?
a) Factor b)
Genotype
c) Gene
d)
Allele
110. According to Mendel one character is governed by
a) One factor b) Two factors
c) Many factor d) Not definite
111. A structure unit of gene is called
a) Muton b) Factor
c)
Recon d) Cistron
112. The recombination unit of gene is called
a) Chiasma b) Cistron
c) Recon d) Muton
113. The mutational unit of gene is called
a) Muton b) Mutagen
c)
Mutant d) Mutation
114. How the genes are arranged on the chromosomes?
a) Linear arrangement
b) Fixed places i.e. loci
c) Random
distribution
d) Both a and b
115. According to modern discovery 7 contrasting
characters of Mendel are present on
a) 4 chromosomes b) 5 chromosomes
d) 7 chromosomes d) None
116. Genotype means the genetic composition of
a) Individual b)
Germ cell
c) Gamete d) Organ
117. When a pure tall plant with round seeds is
crossed with a pure short plant with wrinkled seeds, what proportion of the F1generation
will be short with wrinkled
seeds?
a) None b) 50% c)
1/6 d) 9/16
118. The percentage of 'ab' gametes produced by an AaBb individual is
a) 50
b) 12.5 c)
25 d) 75
119. In the Mendelian dihybrid cross the percentage
of plants of F2 generation with single dominant character is
a) 25 b) 70 c) 6.25 d) 37.5
120. Out of 16 plants in dihybrid cross, how many
plants are heterozygous for two traits ?
a) Four b) Two
b) Nine d) Three
121. TT female x tt Male and TT male x tt female, it indicates
a) Dihybrid cross b)
Back cross
c) Test cross d)
Reciprocal cross
122. The reappearance of dwarfness in F2 generation
when a tall plant is selfed confirmed the law of ...
a) Dominance b)
Segregation
c) Independent assortment
d) Linkage
123. How many tall pea plants are producing in F2
generation in a cross between homozygous
tall pea plant with round seeds and
short plant with wrinkled seeds.
a) 9 b) 3 c) 4
d) 12
124. Substances known as Heredity carriers are ....
a) Ribosomes b)
Genes
c)
Enzymes d) Hormones
125. During protein
synthesis the correct amino acid is
brought to the ribosome and inserted in correct sequence in the growing polypeptide chain by
a) Base
pairing between DNA and m-RNA
b) Base
pairing between m- RNA codon and anticodon in t- RNA
c)
Interaction between two anticodons
d)
Interaction between two triplets’ codons
126. Polysomes are
a) Cell
organelles in prokaryotes
b) Ribosomes
attached to messenger
c) Cell
organelles in eukaryotes
d) Chain of nucleosomes
127. Which of the
function is not performed by DNA
a) Synthesis
of protein
b)
Transmission of hereditary character
c) Synthesis
of carbohydrates
d)
Replication
128. “ The origin
of species” was written by:
(a) Charles
Bell. (b) Lamarck.
(c) Charles
Darwin. (d) Charles Robert Brown
129. The organs
which are similar in their fundamental structure are called:
(a) Vestigial
organs (b) Homologous organs
(c) Analogous
organs.(d) Functions.
130. Analogous
organs are similar in their:
(a) Structure
(b) Origin
(c)
Appearance (d) Functions.
131. “Connecting
links” refer to those animals:
(a) which
possess highly evolved characters.
(b) Which possess
characters of two different groups of living animals.
(c) Which do
not change their characters during evolution.
(d) None of
these.
132. Archaeopteryx
is the connecting link between:
(a) Birds and
Mammals
(b) Fishes
and Amphibia.
(c) Reptiles
and Birds.
(d) Amphibia
Reptiles.
133. Darwin
described the process of natural selection. It is also named ‘Survival of the
fittest’ by :
(a) Lamarck (b) Herbert
Spencer
(c) Hugo De’
Vries. (d) Galton.
134. The presence
of vestigial organs goes in favour of :
(a) Lamarck’s
theory. (b) Darwin’s theory.
(c) De Vries
theory (d) Weismann’s theory.
135. Which one of
the following is a connecting link
between fishes and amphibian?
(a) Bony fishes.
(b) Cartilaginous fishes
(c) Lung
fishes. (d) Star fishes.
136. The process of
evolution:
(a) Was continuous
in the beginning but discontinuous now.
(b) Was
discontinuous in the beginning but continuous now.
(c) Is
alternately continuous and discontinuous.
(d) Is
continuous process.
137. The species
are geographically separated and fail to interbreed. They are called:
(a)
Allopatric (b) Sympatric.
(c) Sibling
Species. (d) Sibling species.
138. The
interruption in gene flow between sister populations for a long time results in
:
(a) Reproductive
isolation
(b) Formation
of new species
(c) Both a
and b
(d) Neither a
nor b.
139. Mutation
theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by :
(a)
Weismann. (b) Malthus
(c) Hugo De
Vries. (d) Wallace.
140. Palaeontological
evidence in favour of organic evolution is shown by :
(a) Darwin’s
finches.
(b) peppered
moth – Biston betularia
(c)
Archaeopteryx.
(d) Duct bill
platypus.
141. Theory of use
and disuse was first proposed by:
(a)
Darwin. (b) Hugo DeVries
(c) Weismann
(d) Lamarck.
142. Organic
evolution took place in :
(a)
Proterozoic era (b) Palaeozoic era.
(c) Mesozoic
era. (d)
Now also taking place.
143. The unit of
natural selection or the survival of the fittest is:
(a)Individual. (b)
Family.
(c)
Population (d) Species.
144. Darwin’s
theory to explain organic evolution was based on :
(a)
Modification of organs through use and disuse.
(b) Over
production (increase in number), struggle for existence and survival of the
fittest
(c)
Mutations.
(d)
Inheritance of acquired characters.
145. Which of the
following is not associated with theory of Darwin?
(a) Natural
selection. (b) Survival of the fittest.
(c) Struggle
for existence
(d) Evolution
by mutation.
146. Homologous
organs explain:
(a) Divergent evolution.
(b) Convergent evolution.
(c)
Pedogenesis. (d) Prodigality.
147. Vestigial
organs occur because :
(a) Incomplete development therefore useless. (b)
Inefficient functions.
(c) Fully
developed but useless. (d)
They are analogous organs.
148. In F2 generation a phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1:
exhibits....
a) back
cross b)
Monohybrid test cross
c)
Lethality d) Dihybrid test cross`
149. Darwin’s
concept of a species is :
(a) A set of
individuals closely resembling each other.
(b) A group
of individuals capable of living together in harmony.
(c) A
population of organisms capable of breeding with another but which is
reproductively isolated from other such population.
(d) None of
the above.
150. Formation of
new species is called:
(a)
Evolution. (b) Natural selection.
(c)
Speciation. (d) Mutation.
151. The homo
sapiens are vertebrates which belong to class :
(a) Reptilia.
(b) Amphibia.
(c)
Mammalia. (d) Aves.
152. The suborder
prosimi of class Mammalia includes :
(a)
Monkeys. (b) Lemurs.
(c) Tarsiers. (d) Both b and c.
153. The living
survivor in the family Hominidae is:
(a) Homo habilis. (b) Homo erectus.
(c) Homo sapiens. (d)
All the three
154. Genome
represents
a) Haploid
chromosomes set
b) Complete
chromosome set
c) Diploid
chromosome set
d) All the
genes present in the population
155. Chromosomes
were first seen by
a) Hofmeister
b) Strasburger
c) Flemming d) Waldeyer
156. The word
chromosome was coined by
a) Benda b) Waldeyer
c) Robert
Hooke d) T.H.Morgan
157. An octamer of 4
histones complexed with DNA forms
a) Endosome b) Nucleosome
c) Mesosome d) Centromere
158. The different
histones associated with nucleosome fibre are -
a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3
b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
159. Haploids are
able to express both recessive and dominant alleles/mutations because there are
a) Many
alleles for each gene
b) Two
alleles for each gene
c) Only one
allele for each gene in the individual
d) Only one
allele in a gene
160. Allosomes are
the name of
a) Sex
chromosomes
b) Swellings
on the chromosomes
c)
Chromosomes other than the ones which determine sex
d) Nucleolus
organising regions of chromosomes
161. In humans,
the sex chromosome complement is
a) XX–XY b) XX–XO
c) ZO–ZZ d) ZW–ZZ
162. A family of
five daughters only in expecting sixth issue. The chance of its beings a son is
a) Zero b) 25% c) 50%
d) 100%
163. In human
beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes
a) Down's
syndrome b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Turner's
syndrome d) Edward's syndrome
164. Down's
syndrome/mongolism is due to
a) Extra sex
chromosome
b) Extra 21st
chromosome
c) Extra
Y-chromosome
d) Deficient
sex chromosome
165. Webbed neck is
characteristic of
a) XXX b) YY
c) XXY d) XO
166. Daughter of a colour-blind
father and normal mother marries a colour-blind person. Colour blindness in the
family shall be
a) 50% sons
and 50% daughters
b) All sons
and daughters
c) All
daughters
d) All sons
167. Chromosome number of Down's syndrome/mongolism is
a) 46 b) 47 c)
45 d) 23
168. Sex of a child
is due to
a) Size of
ovum b) Health of father
c) Sex
chromosome of father/sperm
d) Sex
chromosome of mother/ovum.
169. Diploid
chromosome number in humans is
a) 46 b) 44 c)
48 d) 42
170. Genes for
colour blindness in humans are carried by
a) Mother b) Father
c) Both d) Abnormal sex
171. Haemophiliac
man marries a carrier woman. Percentage of daughters becoming haemophiliac
shall be
a) 0% b) 50% c) 75%
d) 100%
172. Colour
blindness is due to one
a) Recessive
allele in females
b) Dominant
allele in females
c) Dominant
allele in males
d) Recessive
allele in males
173. Ovum producing
Klinefelter's syndrome shall have chromosome number
a) 21 b) 22 c)
23 d) 24.
174. Crossing over
produces
a)
Recombination of linked genes
b) Synapsis
of linked genes
c) Expression
of recessive genes
d) Linkage of
dominant genes
175. A colour-blind
girl is rare because she will be born only when
a) Her mother
and maternal grandfather were colour blind
b) Her father
and maternal grandfather were colour blind
c) Her mother
is colour blind and father has normal vision
d) Parents
have normal vision but grandparents were colour blind
176. Bateson used
the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name the
correct parental or coupling type along with its cross over or repulsion.
a) Coupling
AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, AAbb.
b) Coupling
AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb
c) Coupling
aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aaBB.
d) Coupling
AABB, aabb; Repulsion AAbb, aaBB
177. A single
recessive allele which can express its effect should occur on
a) Any
autosome
b) Any
chromosome
c)
X-chromosome of female
d)
X-chromosome of male
178. Mongolism, Patau's syndrome and Edward's syndrome
are due to
a) Allosomal
abnormalities
b) Autosomal
abnormalities
c) Both A and
B
d) None of
these
179. Out of 64
codons in genetic code how many codons
are responsible for specifying 20 amino acids
a) 20 b) 59 c)
61 d) 64
180. The wobble
effect is
a) Lack of
precision with regard to the third base of anticodon and codon
b)
Instability of DNA molecule when unbound
c)
Instability of pairing when purine pairs
with another purine
d) Undulating
movement of m- RNA
181. Which of the
proper sequence in protein
synthesis
a)Translation
t- RNA amino acid complex - peptide
chain
b) t - RNA
amino acid complex - peptide chain - transcription
c) t- RNA
amino acid complex - peptide chain -
initiation
d)
Transcription- t- RNA amino acid
182. Which is the
correct sequence of code. transfer involve in the formation of polypeptide
a) DNA - t-RNA
- r-RNA -
m-RNA
b) t-RNA
- DNA
- m-RNA -
r-RNA
c) m-RNA -
t-RNA - DNA
- Amino acid
d) DNA - m- RNA
- t-RNA - Amino acid
183. The core of
nucleosome is made up of
a) H3, H2A, H2B, H1 b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4 d) H2A, H2B, H3, H4
184. A plasmid is a
a)
Bacteriophage
b) DNA
molecule incorporated in the bacterial chromosome
c) DNA
molecule present in mitochondria
d) A small
circular DNA molecule capable of self-replication
185. Those enzymes
which break specific nucleotide sequences are called as
a)
Nucleases b) Endonucleases
c)
Exonucleases d) Restriction enzymes
186. The m- RNA
sequence AUG CAG GAU ACG recognises four amino acids and
this
character to the code is referred to as
a)
Degeneracy b) Universality
c) Non -
ambiguity d) Comma lessness
187. During
transcription base sequence in RNA is complementary to one strand of DNA except for the substitution
a) A for G b) U
for C
c) U for T d) C
for T
188. Which one is
an amino acid
a) CH2-CH - NH2COOH
b) NH2CH2CH2 COOH
c) CH3-CHNH2COCI
d) CH3-CH2-COH3
189. the unidirectional flow of
information is carried out from DNA to
RNA to protein referred to as the
a)Central
dogma of molecular biology
b) Circular
flow of information
c) Reverse
central dogma
d) None of
these
190. Wobble
hypothesis was proposed by
a) Niren
burg b) Korn burg
c) Crick d) None
191. In the protein
synthesis t- RNA carrying the amino acid
enter from which site of ribosome
a) a-
site b) P - site
c) Anticodon
site d)
Recognition site
192. The function
of non-sense codon is
a) To release
polypeptide chain from t- RNA
b) To from an
unspecified amino acid
c) To
terminate the message of protein synthesis
d) To convert
a sense DNA into non-sense DNA
193. Which is
correct sequence according
a) t-RNA -
DNA - t- RNA
b) r-RNA -
DNA - t- RNA
c) DNA - r-
RNA - DNA
d) t- RNA -
r-RNA - DNA
194. Sigma factor
is component of
a) DNA
ligase b) DNA polymerase e
c) RNA
polymerase
d)
Dissociation factor
195. An Episome is
a) A genetic
particle which can exist in either cytoplasm or in DNA
b) A segment
of DNA capable of an independent replication
c) A segment
of DNA deleted as a result of mutation
d) None of
these
196. Which one of
the following is the most specific
region on t- RNA?
a) Amino acid
attachment site
b) Amino acid
recognition site
c) Codon
recognition site
d) Ribosome
recognition site
197. There are 64
codons in genetic code dictionary because
a) There are
64 types of t-RNA found in cell
b) There are
44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acid
c) There are
64 amino acids to be coded
d) Genetic
code is triplet
198. Dr hargovind Khurana has been awarded noble prize for researches in
a) Artificial
DNA synthesis
b) Artificial
RNA synthesis
c) Genetic
code d) Amino acid
199. The protein
which unwind DNA molecule during
replication are called as
a)Topoisomerases b)
Helicases
c)
Primases d) All of these
200. The genes that
keep on changing their location on
chromosome are
a)
Pleiotropic genes b) Jumping genes
c) Duplicate
genes d) Split genes
