Amey Prakash Edlabadkar: PRACTICE QUESTIONS : UNIT 7:-NCERT 12 CLASS :- GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

Practice questions

Unit 7

Genetics and evolution

101. The appearance of a hidden character in plants of F2 proclaims the law of

a) Purity of gametes

b) Law of dominance

c) Law of independent assortment

d) Law of segregation

102. Law of purity of gametes is

a) I law b) II law

c) III law d) Not a Mendel law

103. In test cross the plants obtained are

a) All dominant b) All recessive

c) Some dominant and some recessive

d) Dominant and recessive in 1:1 ratio

104. When F1 Plants is crossed with a dominant parent, the plants which are obtained are

a) All recessive b) All dominant

c) Some recessive some dominant

d) Recessive : Dominant (1:1)

105. The validity of F1 is determined by

a) Breeding brother and sister of F1generation

b) Back crossing one or more of F1 individuals

c) Test crossing one or more of F1 individual

d) Producing large progeny

106. Test cross is used to test whether an individual is

a) Heterozygous b) Homozygous

c) Hemizygous d) Both a and b

107. Back cross devised by Mendel is used by plant breeders to

a) Demonstrate the law of independent assortment

b) Exploit hybrid vigour

c) Demonstrate polygenic trails

d) Improve a variety by making a useful trait homozygous

108. Which of the following is test cross?

a) Tt x Tt b) Tt x TT

c) Tt x tt d) None

109. Term from the following is not introduced by Mendel?

a) Factor b) Genotype

c) Gene d) Allele

110. According to Mendel one character is governed by

a) One factor b) Two factors

c) Many factor d) Not definite

111. A structure unit of gene is called

a) Muton b) Factor

c) Recon d) Cistron

112. The recombination unit of gene is called

a) Chiasma b) Cistron

c) Recon d) Muton

113. The mutational unit of gene is called

a) Muton b) Mutagen

c) Mutant d) Mutation

114. How the genes are arranged on the chromosomes?

a) Linear arrangement

b) Fixed places i.e. loci

c) Random distribution

d) Both a and b

115. According to modern discovery 7 contrasting characters of Mendel are present on

a) 4 chromosomes b) 5 chromosomes

d) 7 chromosomes d) None

116. Genotype means the genetic composition of

a) Individual b) Germ cell

c) Gamete d) Organ

117. When a pure tall plant with round seeds is crossed with a pure short plant with wrinkled seeds, what proportion of the F1generation will be short with wrinkled seeds?

a) None b) 50% c) 1/6 d) 9/16

118. The percentage of 'ab' gametes produced by an AaBb individual is

a) 50 b) 12.5 c) 25 d) 75

119. In the Mendelian dihybrid cross the percentage of plants of F2 generation with single dominant character is

a) 25 b) 70 c) 6.25 d) 37.5

120. Out of 16 plants in dihybrid cross, how many plants are heterozygous for two traits ?

a) Four b) Two

b) Nine d) Three

121. TT female x tt Male and TT male x tt female, it indicates

a) Dihybrid cross b) Back cross

c) Test cross d) Reciprocal cross

122. The reappearance of dwarfness in F2 generation when a tall plant is selfed confirmed the law of ...

a) Dominance b) Segregation

c) Independent assortment

d) Linkage

123. How many tall pea plants are producing in F2 generation in a cross between homozygous tall pea plant with round seeds and short plant with wrinkled seeds.

a) 9 b) 3 c) 4 d) 12

124. Substances known as Heredity carriers are ....

a) Ribosomes b) Genes

c) Enzymes d) Hormones

125. During protein synthesis the correct amino acid is brought to the ribosome and inserted in correct sequence in the growing polypeptide chain by

a) Base pairing between DNA and m-RNA

b) Base pairing between m- RNA codon and anticodon in t- RNA

c) Interaction between two anticodons

d) Interaction between two triplets’ codons

126. Polysomes are

a) Cell organelles in prokaryotes

b) Ribosomes attached to messenger

c) Cell organelles in eukaryotes

d) Chain of nucleosomes

127. Which of the function is not performed by DNA

a) Synthesis of protein

b) Transmission of hereditary character

c) Synthesis of carbohydrates

d) Replication

128. “ The origin of species” was written by:

(a) Charles Bell. (b) Lamarck.

129. The organs which are similar in their fundamental structure are called:

(a) Vestigial organs (b) Homologous organs

130. Analogous organs are similar in their:

(a) Structure (b) Origin

131. “Connecting links” refer to those animals:

(a) which possess highly evolved characters.

(b) Which possess characters of two different groups of living animals.

(d) None of these.

132. Archaeopteryx is the connecting link between:

(a) Birds and Mammals

(b) Fishes and Amphibia.

(d) Amphibia Reptiles.

133. Darwin described the process of natural selection. It is also named ‘Survival of the fittest’ by :

(a) Lamarck (b) Herbert Spencer

134. The presence of vestigial organs goes in favour of :

(a) Lamarck’s theory. (b) Darwin’s theory.

135. Which one of the following is a connecting link between fishes and amphibian?

(a) Bony fishes. (b) Cartilaginous fishes

136. The process of evolution:

(a) Was continuous in the beginning but discontinuous now.

(b) Was discontinuous in the beginning but continuous now.

(d) Is continuous process.

137. The species are geographically separated and fail to interbreed. They are called:

(a) Allopatric (b) Sympatric.

138. The interruption in gene flow between sister populations for a long time results in :

(a) Reproductive isolation

(b) Formation of new species

(d) Neither a nor b.

139. Mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by :

(a) Weismann. (b) Malthus

140. Palaeontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is shown by :

(a) Darwin’s finches.

(b) peppered moth – Biston betularia

(d) Duct bill platypus.

141. Theory of use and disuse was first proposed by:

(a) Darwin. (b) Hugo DeVries

142. Organic evolution took place in :

(a) Proterozoic era (b) Palaeozoic era.

143. The unit of natural selection or the survival of the fittest is:

(a)Individual. (b) Family.

144. Darwin’s theory to explain organic evolution was based on :

(a) Modification of organs through use and disuse.

(b) Over production (increase in number), struggle for existence and survival of the fittest

(d) Inheritance of acquired characters.

145. Which of the following is not associated with theory of Darwin?

(a) Natural selection. (b) Survival of the fittest.

(d) Evolution by mutation.

146. Homologous organs explain:

(a) Divergent evolution.

(b) Convergent evolution.

147. Vestigial organs occur because :

(a) Incomplete development therefore useless. (b) Inefficient functions.

148. In F2 generation a phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1: exhibits....

a) back cross b) Monohybrid test cross

c) Lethality d) Dihybrid test cross`

149. Darwin’s concept of a species is :

(a) A set of individuals closely resembling each other.

(b) A group of individuals capable of living together in harmony.

(c) A population of organisms capable of breeding with another but which is reproductively isolated from other such population.

(d) None of the above.

150. Formation of new species is called:

(a) Evolution. (b) Natural selection.

151. The homo sapiens are vertebrates which belong to class :

(a) Reptilia. (b) Amphibia.

152. The suborder prosimi of class Mammalia includes :

(a) Monkeys. (b) Lemurs.

153. The living survivor in the family Hominidae is:

(a) Homo habilis. (b) Homo erectus.

154. Genome represents

a) Haploid chromosomes set

b) Complete chromosome set

c) Diploid chromosome set

d) All the genes present in the population

155. Chromosomes were first seen by

a) Hofmeister b) Strasburger

c) Flemming d) Waldeyer

156. The word chromosome was coined by

a) Benda b) Waldeyer

c) Robert Hooke d) T.H.Morgan

157. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA forms

a) Endosome b) Nucleosome

c) Mesosome d) Centromere

158. The different histones associated with nucleosome fibre are -

a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3

b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4

c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

159. Haploids are able to express both recessive and dominant alleles/mutations because there are

a) Many alleles for each gene

b) Two alleles for each gene

c) Only one allele for each gene in the individual

d) Only one allele in a gene

160. Allosomes are the name of

a) Sex chromosomes

b) Swellings on the chromosomes

c) Chromosomes other than the ones which determine sex

d) Nucleolus organising regions of chromosomes

161. In humans, the sex chromosome complement is

a) XX–XY b) XX–XO

c) ZO–ZZ d) ZW–ZZ

162. A family of five daughters only in expecting sixth issue. The chance of its beings a son is

a) Zero b) 25% c) 50% d) 100%

163. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes

a) Down's syndrome b) Klinefelter’s syndrome

c) Turner's syndrome d) Edward's syndrome

164. Down's syndrome/mongolism is due to

a) Extra sex chromosome

b) Extra 21st chromosome

c) Extra Y-chromosome

d) Deficient sex chromosome

165. Webbed neck is characteristic of

a) XXX b) YY

c) XXY d) XO

166. Daughter of a colour-blind father and normal mother marries a colour-blind person. Colour blindness in the family shall be

a) 50% sons and 50% daughters

b) All sons and daughters

c) All daughters

d) All sons

167. Chromosome number of Down's syndrome/mongolism is

a) 46 b) 47 c) 45 d) 23

168. Sex of a child is due to

a) Size of ovum b) Health of father

c) Sex chromosome of father/sperm

d) Sex chromosome of mother/ovum.

169. Diploid chromosome number in humans is

a) 46 b) 44 c) 48 d) 42

170. Genes for colour blindness in humans are carried by

a) Mother b) Father

c) Both d) Abnormal sex

171. Haemophiliac man marries a carrier woman. Percentage of daughters becoming haemophiliac shall be

a) 0% b) 50% c) 75% d) 100%

172. Colour blindness is due to one

a) Recessive allele in females

b) Dominant allele in females

c) Dominant allele in males

d) Recessive allele in males

173. Ovum producing Klinefelter's syndrome shall have chromosome number

a) 21 b) 22 c) 23 d) 24.

174. Crossing over produces

a) Recombination of linked genes

b) Synapsis of linked genes

c) Expression of recessive genes

d) Linkage of dominant genes

175. A colour-blind girl is rare because she will be born only when

a) Her mother and maternal grandfather were colour blind

b) Her father and maternal grandfather were colour blind

c) Her mother is colour blind and father has normal vision

d) Parents have normal vision but grandparents were colour blind

176. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct parental or coupling type along with its cross over or repulsion.

a) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, AAbb.

b) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb

c) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aaBB.

d) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AAbb, aaBB

177. A single recessive allele which can express its effect should occur on

a) Any autosome

b) Any chromosome

c) X-chromosome of female

d) X-chromosome of male

178. Mongolism, Patau's syndrome and Edward's syndrome are due to

a) Allosomal abnormalities

b) Autosomal abnormalities

c) Both A and B

d) None of these

179. Out of 64 codons in genetic code how many codons are responsible for specifying 20 amino acids

a) 20 b) 59 c) 61 d) 64

180. The wobble effect is

a) Lack of precision with regard to the third base of anticodon and codon

b) Instability of DNA molecule when unbound

c) Instability of pairing when purine pairs with another purine

d) Undulating movement of m- RNA

181. Which of the proper sequence in protein synthesis

a)Translation t- RNA amino acid complex - peptide chain

b) t - RNA amino acid complex - peptide chain - transcription

c) t- RNA amino acid complex - peptide chain - initiation

d) Transcription- t- RNA amino acid

182. Which is the correct sequence of code. transfer involve in the formation of polypeptide

a) DNA - t-RNA - r-RNA - m-RNA

b) t-RNA - DNA - m-RNA - r-RNA

c) m-RNA - t-RNA - DNA - Amino acid

d) DNA - m- RNA - t-RNA - Amino acid

183. The core of nucleosome is made up of

a) H3, H2A, H2B, H1 b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4

c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4 d) H2A, H2B, H3, H4

184. A plasmid is a

a) Bacteriophage

b) DNA molecule incorporated in the bacterial chromosome

c) DNA molecule present in mitochondria

d) A small circular DNA molecule capable of self-replication

185. Those enzymes which break specific nucleotide sequences are called as

a) Nucleases b) Endonucleases

c) Exonucleases d) Restriction enzymes

186. The m- RNA sequence AUG CAG GAU ACG recognises four amino acids and

this character to the code is referred to as

a) Degeneracy b) Universality

c) Non - ambiguity d) Comma lessness

187. During transcription base sequence in RNA is complementary to one strand of DNA except for the substitution

a) A for G b) U for C

c) U for T d) C for T

188. Which one is an amino acid

a) CH2-CH - NH2COOH

b) NH2CH2CH2 COOH

c) CH3-CHNH2COCI

d) CH3-CH2-COH3

189. the unidirectional flow of information is carried out from DNA to RNA to protein referred to as the

a)Central dogma of molecular biology

b) Circular flow of information

c) Reverse central dogma

d) None of these

190. Wobble hypothesis was proposed by

a) Niren burg b) Korn burg

c) Crick d) None

191. In the protein synthesis t- RNA carrying the amino acid enter from which site of ribosome

a) a- site b) P - site

c) Anticodon site d) Recognition site

192. The function of non-sense codon is

a) To release polypeptide chain from t- RNA

b) To from an unspecified amino acid

c) To terminate the message of protein synthesis

d) To convert a sense DNA into non-sense DNA

193. Which is correct sequence according

a) t-RNA - DNA - t- RNA

b) r-RNA - DNA - t- RNA

c) DNA - r- RNA - DNA

d) t- RNA - r-RNA - DNA

194. Sigma factor is component of

a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase e

c) RNA polymerase

d) Dissociation factor

195. An Episome is

a) A genetic particle which can exist in either cytoplasm or in DNA

b) A segment of DNA capable of an independent replication

c) A segment of DNA deleted as a result of mutation

d) None of these

196. Which one of the following is the most specific region on t- RNA?

a) Amino acid attachment site

b) Amino acid recognition site

c) Codon recognition site

d) Ribosome recognition site

197. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because

a) There are 64 types of t-RNA found in cell

b) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acid

c) There are 64 amino acids to be coded

d) Genetic code is triplet

198. Dr hargovind Khurana has been awarded noble prize for researches in

a) Artificial DNA synthesis

b) Artificial RNA synthesis

c) Genetic code d) Amino acid

199. The protein which unwind DNA molecule during replication are called as

a)Topoisomerases b) Helicases

c) Primases d) All of these

200. The genes that keep on changing their location on chromosome are

a) Pleiotropic genes b) Jumping genes

c) Duplicate genes d) Split genes

Amey Prakash Edlabadkar

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Monday, December 25, 2023

PRACTICE QUESTIONS : UNIT 7:-NCERT 12 CLASS :- GENETICS AND EVOLUTION

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